Características, clasificación y tipos demarca

La construcción social de la marca de lujo en el sector moda

Capítulo 1. La construcción social de la marca de lujo en el sector moda

1.1. Marca. Concepto y construcción

1.1.2. Características, clasificación y tipos demarca

avoids removal of stitches and its complications.

http://faculty.ksu.edu.sa/8210/Documents/Inflammation.Lecture9.pdf 80) Sweating is absent in

a) Heat stroke b) Heat syncope c) Heat exhaustion d) Miner’s cramps A

81) According to the 2013 amendment the age for sexual consent is a) 16 years

b) 18 years c) 20 years d) 15 years B

ans-B

375. A man is said to commit "rape" if he— Rape- (a) penetrates his penis, to any extent, into the vagina, mouth, urethra oranus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person; or (b) inserts, to any extent, any object or a part‘ of the body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so withhim or any other person; or (c) manipulates any part of the body of a woman so as to cause penetrationinto the vagina, urethra, anus or any part of body of such woman or makes her todo so with him or any other person; or (d) applies his mouth to the vagina, anus, urethra of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, under the circumstances falling under any of the following seven

descriptions:— First. —Against her will. Secondly—Without her consent. ThirdIy—With her consent, when her consent has been obtained byputting her or any person in whom she is interested, in fear of death or of hurt. F ourthly—With her consent, when the man knows that he is not herhusband and that her consent is given because she believes that he is anotherman to whom she is or believes herself to be lawfully married. Fiﬂhly.—With her consent when, at the time of giving such consent, by

reason of unsoundness of mind or intoxication or the administration by him personally or through another of any stupefying or unwholesome substance,she is unable to understand the nature and consequences of that to which shegives consent

*****Sixthly—With or without her consent, when she is under eighteen years of age.****** Seventhly.--When she is unable to communicate consent. Explanation I.—-For the purposes of this section, "vagina" shall also includelabia majora. Explanation 2.—Consent means an unequivocal voluntary agreement whenthe woman by words, gestures or any form of verbal or non-verbal communication,communicates

willingness to participate in the speciﬁc sexual act http://indiacode.nic.in/acts-in-pdf/132013.pdf 82) HPV can cause all of these cancers except a) Base of tongue carcinoma

b) Tonsillar carcinoma

c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma d) Ca Cervix

What head and neck cancers can be caused by HPV?

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HPV can cause cancers in the back of the throat, most commonly in the base of the

tongue and tonsils, in an area known as the “oropharynx.” These cancers are called

“oropharyngeal cancers.”

How does HPV cause cancer?

HPV can cause normal cells in infected skin to turn abnormal. Most of the time, you cannot see or feel these cell changes. In most cases, the body fights off the HPV infection naturally and infected cells then go back to normal. But in cases when the body does not fight off this virus, HPV can cause visible changes and certain types of HPV can cause an oropharyngeal cancer. Cancer caused by HPV often takes years to develop after initially getting an HPV infection. It is unclear if having HPV alone is sufficient to cause oropharyngeal cancers, or if other factors (such as smoking or chewing tobacco) interact with HPV to cause these cancers. More research is needed to understand all the factors leading to oropharyngeal cancers.

http://www.cancer.med.umich.edu/news/nasopharyngeal-cancer09.shtml What head and neck cancers can be caused by HPV?

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HPV can cause cancers in the back of the throat, most commonly in the base of the tongue and tonsils, in an area known as the “oropharynx.” These cancers are called

“oropharyngeal cancers.”

How does HPV cause cancer?

http://www.cdc.gov/std/hpv/stdfact-hpvandoralcancer.htm

83) Kashima operation done for a) Vocal cord

b) Recurrent Cholesteatoma c) Atrophic rhinitis

d) ??

This video clipping shows coablation technology being used to perform kashima’s operation. This surgery is performed to manage patients with bilateral abductor nerve paralysis of vocal folds.

https://youtu.be/XK_D7oLd28g

84) The main vessel involved in bleeding from JNA a) Internal maxillary A.

b) Ascending pharyngeal A.

c) ??

85) Eustachian tube function is best assessed by a) Politzer test

b) VEMP

c) Rhinomanometry d) Tympanometry A

ans=d>a?

politzer’s Test Politzer’s test is performed by compressing one naris into whichthe end of a rubber tube attached to an air bag has been insert-ed while compressing the opposite naris with finger pressure.The subject is asked to repeat the letter K or is asked to swallowto close the velopharyngeal port (Figure 8–13). When the testresult is positive, the overpressure that develops in thenasopharynx is transmitted to the middle ear, thus creating pos-itive middle-ear pressure. Assessment of the middle-ear pressureand the significance of the test results are the same as withValsalva’s test in that a normal result indicates only tubal paten-cy. However, both Valsalva’s and Politzer’s methods can be ofbenefit as a treatment when effusion or high negative pressure ispresent within the middle ear if the patient can successfullyinflate the middle ear. Valsalva’s and Politzer’s maneuvers maybe more beneficial as management options in selected patientsthan they are as methods to assess tubal function, althoughthere is controversy about the efficacy of these procedures fortreatment of middle-ear effusion (see Chapter 9, “Role inManagement of Otitis Media”).

---

Tests of Pressure Regulation Function When theTympanic Membrane Is Intact Eustachian tube function in individuals with intact tympanicmembranes may be determined by manometry, tympanometry or sonotubometry. A pressure chamber may

or may not be nec-essary for testing.

Tympanometry Determination of middle-ear pressure and acoustic immittanceusing electroacoustic impedance equipment were introduced byMetz about 50 years ago.51 These same techniques have beenused to perform tympanometry, which is the measurement ofthe acoustic driving-point immittance as a function of the stat-ic pressure in the canal. If low-frequency tones are used for themeasurement, the static pressure that produces the maximalacoustic immittance is approximately equal to the

gas pressurein the middle ear.Tympanometry in a Pressure Chamber Thomsen adapted theacoustic impedance method for use in a pressure chamber.43 Hevaried the chamber pressure and measured the percentage ofabsorption of a tone presented into the ear canal. He found thatthere was a fall in absorption as the pressure difference betweenthe middle ear and the chamber was increased. The absorptionreached a peak when the two pressures were identical.Unfortunately, Thomsen’s technique failed to account for thechange in middle-ear pressure caused by the measurement pro-cedure. As the pressure in the chamber is varied (in search ofmaximal loudness or absorption), the tympanic membranemoves from its original position to a new position, thus chang-ing the volume of the middle-ear cavity. However, according toBoyle’s law, as the volume of the cavity changes, the pressuremust also change.

Thus, by knowing the volume displacementand “measuring” the final pressure, the original pressure can bededuced.Bylander used tympanometry with a pressure chamber toevaluate Eustachian tube function in normal children.23 In thismethod, the resting middle-ear pressure is obtained from theinitial tympanogram. Then the chamber pressure is lowered to100 mm H2O relative to ambient pressure, and a second tym-panogram is obtained, verifying the relative overpressure in themiddle ear. After this deglutition of the subject, a tympanogramis recorded to determine middle-ear pressure. The same proce-dure is repeated with 100 mm H2O relative overpressure in thechamber to assess the subject’s ability to actively equilibrate rel-ative underpressure in the middle ear. With use of this method,the inflation-deflation test was conducted on 50 children, andthe results were compared with the results of tests that measuredtubal function in adults. In this way, the first database for tubalfunction in otologically normal children was established.Shupak and colleagues also used tympanometry inside apressure chamber to assess the ability of naval scuba divers toequilibrate negative middle-ear pressure.5

86) Topical trt for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis includes a) Acyclovir

b) Cidofovir c) Ranitidine d) Zinc B

Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP) is a rare but potentially severe disease caused by papillomavirus, most often types 6 and 11. The disease, which occurs in both juvenile and adult forms, is characterized by benign epithelial tumors of the airway that most frequently affect the larynx but can also spread along the entire aerodigestive tract. Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis is the most common benign neoplasm of the larynx in children and the second most frequent cause of childhood hoarseness. Standard treatment, which is palliative only, consists of surgical excision of papillomata to maintain airway patency and improve voice quality. Recurrence despite repeated surgical procedures is the rule. To date, incorporation of adjuvant treatments has not been reliably beneficial in altering the disease course. Several case series have described promising results with cidofovir, a cytosine nucleoside analog with antiviral activity. To evaluate the data available on the safety and

efficacy of cidofovir for the treatment of RRP, we conducted a MEDLINE search for all case reports or series from January 1966-August 2004 describing cidofovir therapy in either adults or children with RRP. The bibliographies of qualifying articles were also searched for relevant references. In both adults and children with mild-to-severe RRP, intralesional administration of cidofovir directly into the site of papillomata was associated with partial-to-complete regression of papillomata, improvement in voice quality and airway status, and decreased need for surgery. Wide variation in intralesional cidofovir dose (2-57 mg), frequency (every 2-8 wks), and duration (4 mo-4 yrs) was found. Successful outcomes have also been reported with intravenous cidofovir, but data are limited to three case reports. Rash, headache, and precordialgia were the only adverse effects reported with intralesional cidofovir. Nephrotoxicity and neutropenia secondary to either intralesional or intravenous cidofovir were not observed. Long-term risks associated with intralesional administration remain to be seen. Further studies are necessary to determine the most appropriate dose, frequency, and duration of therapy, and to fully characterize the safety profile of cidofovir when given intralesionally.

Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP) is a rare disease caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), most commonly types 6 and 11.[1, 2] Papillomavirus is a small, nonenveloped virus consisting of an icosahedral capsid enclosing a double-stranded, circular DNA genome. At least 70 HPV types have been identified, most of which are associated with epithelial tumors of the skin and mucous membranes, such as plantar warts, condylomata acuminata (anogenital warts), and epidermodysplasia verruciformis.[3, 4] Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis is manifested as exophytic lesions that most frequently affect the larynx but can also spread along the entire aerodigestive tract. The presence of these benign neoplasms can cause symptoms ranging from dysphonia to life-threatening respiratory distress, and can profoundly affect the quality of life of patients with RRP.[5, 6]

Traditionally, RRP has been classified based on patient age at diagnosis, such that two forms of the disease have been described: one with onset in childhood, which is arbitrarily defined as younger than 12 years (juvenile-onset RRP), the other in adulthood (adult-onset RRP). Juvenile-onset RRP is observed more often and is typically more aggressive than its adult counterpart. Peak age for the juvenile form is around 4 years, compared with the third decade of life for the adult form.[7, 8] Among children, RRP is the most common benign neoplasm of the larynx and the second most frequent cause of hoarseness.[9]

http://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/507662

87) The MC mode of spread of retinoblastoma a) Lymphatics

b) Optic nerve c) Direct invasion d) Vascular

88) Evisceration of eye is not done in a) Malignancy

b) Panophthalmitis c) Severe globe trauma d) Expulsive Hemorrhage

89) Multifocal ERG is very useful because a) Can assess rods

b) Can assess macular cones

c) Can assess function of ganglion layer d) ??

Electro Diagnostics

1. Full field Electroretinography (ERG): Test which measures the electrical responses of various cell types in the retina, including the photoreceptors (rods and cones), inner retinal cells (bipolar and amacrine cells). Used to diagnose various retinal degenerations.

Retinitis pigmentosa and their variants X-linked juvenile retinoschisis

Heredo-macular degenerations Retinal Vascular occlusions Intraocular Foreign Body

***2. Multifocal Electroretinography (mfERG): Multifocal electroretinography (mfERG) is a valuable technique in assessing macular function in retinal disease objectively. It is used to record separate responses for different retinal locations.**** It is also used in the detection of

Macular dystrophies Macular hole

X-linked retinoschisis Drug toxicity

Multifocal choroditis White-dot syndrome

3. Electrooculogram (EOG): This is used to assess the function of the outer retina and Retinal Pigment Epithelium (RPE). EOG is used to confirm

Best disease

Suspected drug toxicities

4. Pattern Electroretinogram (PERG): This test provides information about central macular and retinal ganglion cell layer. It is also used to differentiate vision loss due to retinal or optic nerve diseases. PERG is used in evaluating

Glaucoma and ocular hypertension, Optic neuritis other optic neuropathies, Maculopathies

5. Visually Evoked Responses (VEP): The VEP is a test to detect problems with the optic nerve and lesions in the anterior part of our visual pathway. VEP tests are used to evaluate

Optic neuritis,

Compressive Optic neuropathy, Toxic amblyopia

Cortical Blindness

Demyelenating diseases such as multiple sclerosis.

Unexplained visual loss

6. Multifocal Visually Evoked Responses (mfVEP): This test allows for topographical assessment of visual field. In this test multiple individual VEP responses are recorded simultaneously from 60 or so regions of the central 20 to 25° radius of the visual field.

This is also known as objective visual field perimetry. Indications are Diagnosing and Following of Optic Neuritis/Multiple Sclerosis

Unexplained visual loss

Detecting and following of Glaucomatous damage Confirming unreliable or questionable fields

http://www.sankaranethralaya.org/patient-care-electra-diagnostics.html 90) When compared to blood, Vitreous humor has high concentration of

a) Glucose b) Sodium c) Potassium d) Ascorbate D

Vitreous humor contains ascorbic acid at a higher concentration than blood.[1] Different species of animals have different concentrations of ascorbic acid in vitreous humor.[2] During development of the eye. the ascorbic acid content of the vitreous in fetuses was found to increase gradually until the adult level was reached prior to birth.

[3] We report the same to be true in human fetal eye

http://www.ijo.in/article.asp?issn=0301-4738;year=1983;volume=31;issue=2;spage=73;epage=74;aulast=Sen

91) Sensory supply of cornea is by a) Infratrochlear N.

b) Infraorbital N.

c) Naso lacrimal N d) Supraorbital N.

ans=A

Nerve supply of Cornea:

Cornea is one of the highly sensitive tissue of human body. Density of the nerve ending in cornea is about 300 times of that of skin. An area of 0.01 mm2 cornea may contain as many as 100 nerve endings. Cornea is primarily

innervated through the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

has three parts: the frontal nerve, the lacrimal nerve, and the nasociliary nerve. The nasociliary nerve provides sensory innervation to the cornea.

infratrochlear nerve in·fra·troch·le·ar nerve (ĭn'frə-trŏk'lē-ər) n.

A branch of the nasociliary nerve, supplying the skin of the eyelids and the root of the nose.

The American Heritage® Stedman's Medical Dictionary

http://www.eophtha.com/eophtha/anatomy/anatomyofcornea3.html 92) Universal marker of limbal stem cells

A. Elastin B. Keratin C. Collagen D.ABCG2 D

Putative positive and negative LESC markers

The literature reflects many attempts to prospectively identify LESC using a specific marker. As yet no single, reliable marker has been found. However, the expression of a combination of several features seems to allow for greater specificity.

Putative ‘markers’ can either be positive (present) or negative (absent). Limbal basal cells lack differentiation markers such as the 64 kDa cytokeratin 3 (CK3) that is present in all other layers of the corneal epithelium and the suprabasal layers of the limbal epithelium (Schermer et al., 1986). The corneal specific 55 kD protein, cytokeratin 12 (CK12) is also expressed in a similar pattern (Chaloin-Dufau et al., 1990). Furthermore, connexin 43 (Shortt et al., 2007a; Matic et al., 1997) and involucrin (Chen et al., 2004), both markers of cells destined for differentiation, are also absent.

The transcription factor p63 is required for formation of epidermis and has been proposed as a putative positive LESC marker (Pellegrini et al., 2001). In vitro,p63 was found to be expressed in limbal epithelial cell derived holoclones with little or no expression in meroclones and paraclones. In vivo, p63 was located in the limbal basal epithelium. However, since these initial observations a number of reports have suggested that p63 is not

sufficiently specific to act as an LESC marker as it has also been localised to basal cells of the peripheral and central cornea in humans (Chen et al., 2004; Dua et al., 2003) and in rats (Chee et al., 2006). However, limbal epithelial cells expressing high levels of p63 with a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio appear to be more stem like (Arpitha et al., 2005). Further work has since indicated that the ΔNp63α isoform may more specifically label LESC (Di Iorio et al., 2005).

Many types of organ-specific stem cells, including LESC have been recently shown to exhibit a side population (SP) phenotype. The SP cells are able to efflux Hoechst 33342 dye through the ATP-binding cassette transporter Bcrp1/ABCG2. ABCG2 has therefore been proposed to be a universal marker for stem cells (Zhou et al., 2001;

Watanabe et al., 2004). In putative LESCs, this protein has been immunolocalised to the cell membrane and

cytoplasm of a population of limbal basal cells and a few suprabasal cells (Chen et al., 2004). Furthermore, ABCG2 positive cells produce higher colony forming efficiency values in vitro than their negative counterparts (de Paiva et al., 2005). Our laboratory has localised ABCG2 to the outer edge of holoclones where it is thought that the stem cells reside.

http://www.stembook.org/node/588

93) High molecular wt proteins in cataractous lens seen only in humans A. HM 1&2

B. HM 2&4 C. HM 3&4 D. HM 2&3

ANS=C

REF=The Eye Part IB

edited by Hugh Davson,p310

Tanak and Benedek measured the protein diffusivity in intact human and bovine lens and could find no evidence of protein longer than alfa-crystallin in normal lens(calf and human aged 43 years),but found large aggregates in human cataracts .Of aggregates found in vitro,only fractions HM3 and HM4 are found exclusively in human cataracts

Crystallin is found in epithelial and fiber cells of the ocular lens

Crystallin role structural

alpha crystallin role molecular chaperones, inhibits crystallin aggregation which form senile cataracts

The difference between normal and cataractous lens is the amount of water soluble (same in normal) and insoluble (more in cataractous)

HM3 forms cortical cataracts

HM4 forms nuclear cataracts

In document de la marca de lujo (página 39-44)