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The Bible uses certain terms that refer only to the true God or are used in ways that show they refer to the true God. We will see that inspired men used these unique terms to refer to Jesus. This would be blasphemy if Jesus did not possess Deity.

“God”

The Old Testament word for “God” is ELOHIM (and the variations EL, ELAH, ELOAH). It comes from a root meaning “to fear and reverence,” emphasizing the respect that is due God because of His power and authority. The corresponding New Testament word is THEOS (θεος).

Since the Bible teaches there is only one true God, if the word is used for Jesus then He must possess true Deity (unless something in context shows He is a false god or that an exceptional meaning is being employed).

We have already studied some general passages where forms of this word are used for Jesus: John 1:1; Colossians 2:9; and Philippians 2:6. Consider these other cases:

John 20:28,29

After he saw proof of Jesus’ resurrection, Thomas addressed Jesus as “my Lord and my God” (KJV, NKJV, ASV, NASB, RSV, NEB, NIV). Clearly Thomas is here calling Jesus “God.” Consider:

This statement is clearly addressed to Jesus. Some claim Thomas spoke to the Father, but the passage clearly shows “Thomas answered and said to Him,” i.e., to Jesus.

The word for God is θεος with the definite article. According to their argument on John 1:1, even Jehovah’s Witnesses must admit that this means the one true God, in the same sense as the Father.

If Jesus did not possess Deity, Thomas’ statement would have been blasphemy, and Jesus should have rebuked Him. Instead, Jesus praised Thomas and pronounced a blessing on everyone who believes the same (v29)!

Note further that Thomas combined the terms “Lord” and “God” in a phrase of address to Jesus. These terms, when so

combined in the Scriptures, are always a term of address for the True God.

Hebrews 1:8

The Father said to Son, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever” (KJV, NKJV, ASV, NASB, RSV, NEB, NIV). This is a quotation from Psalm 45:6,7, which is translated exactly the same (KJV, NKJV, ASV, NASB, NIV).

Note that God the Father Himself is here addressing Jesus as “God” (cf. vv 1-9).

Further “God” here has the definite article so even Witnesses must admit it refers to the one True God.

To try to avoid the force of the argument, the Witnesses’ “New World Translation” says, “God is thy throne for ever and ever.” This makes “God” the subject of the sentence, not a noun of address. However:

* The translation “God is thy throne…” is meaningless and absurd. How could God be Jesus’ throne? God is not a throne, but a person. No Scripture elsewhere ever uses such language.

* No other standard translation so translates Hebrews 1:8. All translate “Thy throne, O God, …” (see above). [The ASV places in the footnote “Thy throne is God…,” and the RSV and NEB have “God is thy throne” as footnotes, but none of them accept it as being the best translation here. The others do not even list it as a possibility.]

* On Psalm 45:6,7 no standard translation gives “Your throne is God” as even a possibility in the footnote! Keil and Delitzch say, regarding such translation, that it “cannot possibly be supported in Hebrew by any syntax.” So, even if it could be grammatically possible in the Greek of Hebrews 1:8, it is not possible in the Hebrew passage from which Hebrews 1:8 is quoted! [ASV footnote on Psalm 45:6 has “Thy throne is the throne of God…,” adding the italicized words.” But this is not possible in Hebrews 1:8!]

[* Virtually all recognized Greek scholars agree that “God” in Hebrews 1:8 is a noun of address, not the subject nor a predicate nominative. This includes all the standard translations (as above) plus Arndt & Gingrich, Vine, Vincent, Marshall, and Keil. Lenski adds: “… only the unwillingness of commentators to have the Son addressed so directly as … ‘God’ causes the search for a different construction.” Hence, it is not the original language that motivates the translation but the preconceived beliefs of the translators!]

Hence, the only possible translation that fits both the Greek of Hebrews 1:8 and the Hebrew of Psalm 45:6 is “Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever.” God the Father Himself called Jesus “God” (with the definite article).

Psalm 102:24

“I said, O my God, Do not take me away…” Hebrews 1:10-12 directly quotes Psalm 102:25-27 and says that it was spoken “to the Son” (v8). The context of Psalm 102:24 shows it is clearly addressed to the same person addressed in vv 25-27.

Hence, in v24 Jesus is addressed as “O my God.” Isaiah 9:6

Jesus’ name would be called “Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God…” This is clearly a prophecy of the Son, as seen in the beginning of the verse. Hence, Jesus is called “Mighty God.”

Some respond that there is no definite article, but this position has been answered on John 1:1 (see notes there). Note also Isaiah 10:21 where identical language (EL-GIBBOR), without the article, clearly refers to the one true God (even in the NWT). Cf. Jeremiah 32:18; Deuteronomy 10:17; Nehemiah 9:32.

Titus 2:13

“…looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ” (NKJV, NASB, RSV, NEB, NIV, ASV footnote). Older translations say “the great God and our Savior” (KJV, ASV), which some argue implies two separate persons. Consider:

* Newer translations listed above all make clear that one person (Jesus) is being referred to both as “God” and “Savior.”

* We are looking for the glorious appearing of this “great God.” But whose appearing are we expecting? Other similar passages refer to the coming of Jesus: 1 Timothy 6:14 (1 Corinthians 1:7; Colossians 3:4; Philippians 3:20; Acts 1:11; 2 Timothy 4:1,8).

* In the Greek, one article here precedes two descriptive terms (“God” and “Savior”) connected by “and.” Whenever this is done, both terms describe the same person. In order for two people to be meant, two articles would be needed.

Here are other similar examples (in each case, one Greek article precedes two descriptive terms, both terms therefore describing one person.):

2 Peter 1:11 — “the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ”

2 Peter 2:20 — “the knowledge of the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ” [cf. 3:18]

2 Peter 3:2 — “the apostles of the Lord and Savior”

[This is called Sharp’s rule. Arndt & Gingrich say, “θεος certainly refers to Christ in … Titus 2:13…” See Vine (Vol. II, pp. 160f), also the grammars of Schmiedel, Moulton, Robertson, and Blass-Debrunner (quoted by Metzger), Dana & Mantey, and Blackwelder (quoted by Barnett).]

Hence, here is another passage referring to Jesus as “our great God,” using a definite article in Greek. This expression is used often in the Old Testament referring to the true God (Daniel 2:45; Deuteronomy 10:17; Jeremiah 32:18; Ezra 5:8).

2 Peter 1:1

“…the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ” (NKJV, NASB, RSV, NEB, NIV, ASV footnote). The point here is the same as on Titus 2:13. The Greek has one article then two descriptive terms separated by “and.” The rule described above means both terms refer to the same person. Hence, Jesus is here called “our God” with the definite article.

[KJV translates “of God and our Savior Jesus Christ.” ASV has “our God and the Savior Jesus Christ.” But the evidence above shows one person is meant.]

[Lenski says: “The use of the one article would say that but ONE person is referred to … The effort to find a reference to two persons, God and Christ, is nullified linguistically by the use of but one article in the Greek. There is nothing more to say.” Vine agrees. Clarke says: “…it is an absolute proof that Peter calls Christ ‘God’ even in the properest sense of the word, with the article affixed.”]

[Another less obvious example is Revelation 22:6 — The “Lord God” sent his angel to reveal these things. But He said, “I am coming quickly” (v7), clearly referring to Jesus (3:11; 22:20). See also Romans 9:5; Acts 20:28 (see notes).]

Conclusion regarding the term “God.”

Hence, the Scriptures repeatedly call Jesus “God.” But there is only one true God. Jesus is not a false God. Hence, He must be referred to as the one true God. He possesses Deity and is part of the Godhead along with the Father (and the Holy Spirit, as other passages show).

Note Acts 12:20-23 where Herod was killed for allowing people to call him a god. If Jesus were not Deity, the references to him as “God” in all these passages would be blasphemous. Yet they were spoken by inspired men and were praised by Jesus.

“The First and the Last,” “Alpha and Omega”

Isaiah 44:6 — “Thus saith Jehovah … Jehovah of hosts: I am the first, and I am the last; and besides me there is no God” (ASV). Clearly “the first and the last” refers to the one true God. Like the terms “I am” and “Jehovah,” this expression emphasizes God’s eternal self-existence (cf. Isaiah 43:10). See also Isaiah 41:4; 48:12.

Revelation 1:8 — “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End … who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.”

Hence, the Almighty, who is eternally existent, calls Himself “the Alpha and the Omega” (the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet), “the Beginning and the End.” The meaning is the same as “the first and the last.”

Revelation 21:6,7 also shows that “Alpha and Omega” means the same as “Beginning and End” and refers to God.

These terms are also used for Jesus.

Revelation 1:17 — “I am the First and the Last.” The context (vv 10-20) shows Jesus is speaking. He was like the Son of Man (v13), who lives, was dead, and is alive forever (v18). [1:11 uses these same expressions in NKJV, but they are not in ASV.]

Revelation 2:8 — “These things says the First and the Last, who was dead, and came to life.” Clearly this is Jesus again speaking. Some quibble saying this means He was the first and last to be raised by the Father. But no such dodge is available on the next verse.

Revelation 22:13 — “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.” All three expressions are used together, showing they mean the same thing. The identical use in Revelation 1:8 proves they refer to the Almighty. But who is speaking here?

* The “I” of v13 is identified in v12 as the “I” who comes quickly to reward everyone according to His work. Throughout Revelation this refers to Jesus (Revelation 1:1,2,7; 3:3,11; 2:23; 22:20; cf. Matthew 16:27; 2 Corinthians 5:10). The Father has given all judgment to the Son (John 5:22,23).

* The “I” of v13 is identified in v16 as “Jesus” who sent His angel to testify these things to the churches. He is the offspring of David.

* The “I” of v13, who comes quickly (v12) and who testified these things (v16), is identified in v20 as the “Lord Jesus.”

Hence, Jesus is the “First and Last,” the “Alpha and Omega,” “Beginning and End.” These are terms for Deity in Isaiah 44:6 and Revelation 1:8, yet are used in exactly the same way for Jesus.

“Lord of Lords”