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reaching the sewer after use; hence it is related in quantity and in flow fluc- tuation to water use. The discharge of waste waters into surface-water or ground water courses, which consti- tute the natural drainage of an area is known as sewage disposal.

Most waste waters contain offen- sive and potentially dangerous subs- tances, which can use pollution and contamination of the receiving water bodies. Contamination is defined as the impairment of water quality to a degree that create a hazard to public health. Pollution refers to the adverse effects on water quality that interfere with its proper and beneficial use. The principal sources of pollution are domestic sewage and industrial wastes.

The water-quality criteria deal with the physio-chemical and biologi- cal parameters of pollution. The most common standards are concerned with physical appearance, odour pro- duction, dissolved-oxygen concentra- tion, pathogenic contamination, and potentially toxic or harmful chemicals. ●●●

1. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution propounds Equality before Law ?

(A) Article 15 (B) Article 13 (C) Article 14 (D) Article 12 2. Which of the Articles of the

Constitution of India enshrines protection against arrest and detention in certain cases ? (A) Article 22 (B) Article 23 (C) Article 25 (D) Article 26 3. Ozone layer lies in—

(A) Mesosphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Exosphere (D) None of the above

4. Which Article of Indian Consti- tution says that “no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law” ?

(A) Article 265 (B) Article 266 (C) Article 268 (D) Article 270 5. Chemically Vitamin C is—

(A) Riboflavin (B) Thiamin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin 6. Which of the following vitamins is

not fat-soluble ?

(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E 7. The poem ‘Pagri Sambhal O

Jatta’ which infused patriotic fervour in Punjab during freedom struggle was written by— (A) Banke Dayal (B) Lala Lajpat Roy (C) Sardar Ajit Singh (D) Ghulam Kader

8. ‘India’s First War of Indepen- dence’ is the book written by— (A) Bhupendranath Dutt (B) Ganesh Savarkar

(C) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (D) Lala Hardayal

9. The Gadar Party was set up in— (A) 1913 (B) 1915 (C) 1914 (D) 1912 10. Kaiga Atomic Power Plant is

situated in— (A) Karnataka (B) Maharashtra

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu

11. The maximum number of mem- bers that the Legislative Assem- bly of a State in India can have, is—

(A) 400 (B) 450 (C) 500 (D) 550

12. Bank rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to—

(A) Public Sector Undertakings (B) Scheduled Commercial

Banks

(C) Private Corporate Sector (D) Non-Banking FinancialInsti-

tutions

13. Who of the following founded the East India Association ?

(A) C. R. Das (B) Dadabhai Noroji (C) Devendra Nath Tagore (D) V. D. Savarkar

14. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English forces under—

(A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Lord Wellesley (C) Lord Dalhousie (D) Lord Hastings

15. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between—

(A) Marathas and Portuguese (B) The English and the French (C) The English and the Por-

tuguese

(D) The Marathas and the English

16. Golden Quadrilateral Project is— (A) Conversion of meter gauge

into broad gauge

(B) Construction of four lane highways joining four metro- polis of India

(C) Joining of four important rivers of North India and South-India

(D) Joining of four important cities of India with air trans- port

17. The first weekly Bengali news- paper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was published by—

(A) Harish Chandra Mukherjee (B) Dinabandhu Mitra

(C) Marshman (D) Vidyasagar

18. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank situ- ated at ?

(A) Jakarta (B) Manila (C) Singapore (D) Bangkok 19. Who was responsible for the

introduction of the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 ?

(A) Lord Mayo (B) Lord Lytton (C) Lord Rippon (D) Lord Curzon

20. Gandhiji started Civil Disobe- dience Movement in—

(A) 1930 (B) 1931 (C) 1933 (D) 1942 21. As per 2001 census of India, the

total number of million cities in the country is—

(A) 25 (B) 30

(C) 35 (D) 40

22. The country with the largest of petroleum reserves in the world is—

(A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) Saudi Arabia (D) Russia 23. The three leading petroleum pro-

ducing countries in correct descending order are—

(A) Saudi Arabia, U.S.A. and Russia

(B) U.S.A., Saudi Arabia and Iran

(C) Saudi Arabia, U.S.A. and Iran

(D) U.S.A., Saudi Arabia and Mexico

24. The largest producer of silver in the world is—

(A) Canada (B) Mexico (C) U.S.A. (D) Australia 25. The largest exporter of fish in the

world is—

(A) Norway (B) U.K. (C) Canada (D) Japan

26. Which one of the following States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Caste population ? (A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Punjab (C) Rajasthan (D) West Bengal

27. The Indian National Congress was founded by—

(A) Lala Lajpat Roy (B) Lord Dufferin (C) Lord Ripon

(D) Allen Octavian Hume 28. AnnieBesant arrived in India in—

(A) 1893 (B) 1895 (C) 1890 (D) 1904 29. In which state are the Mahadeo

hills located ? (A) Bihar (B) Rajasthan (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Chhattisgarh

30. From economic point of view the most important rocks of India are—

(A) Dharwar (B) Gondwana (C) Vindhyan (D) Cuddappah 31. To which of the following did

Aurangzeb give title Deen Panah ?

(A) Mohammad Azam (B) Azam

(C) Kam Bakhash (D) None of the above 32. Nadir Shah invaded India in—

(A) 1740 (B) 1739 (C) 1745 (D) 1746 33. During which of the following

Mughal Emperor’s rule was the third battle of Panipat fought ? (A) Alamgir II

(B) Bahadur Shah II (C) Akbar Shah II (D) Shah Alam II

34. During 1707 to 1759, in a span of just five decades how many Mughal Emperors had ascended the throne ?

(A) Eight (B) Nine (C) Seven (D) Six

35. The Atmiya Sabha was founded by—

(A) Swami Vivekanand (B) Raja Rammohan Roy (C) Swami Dayanand

(D) Ramakrishna Paramhansa

36. Howmanydepartments are there in the Ministry of Home Affairs ?

(A) 6 (B) 7

(C) 5 (D) 4

37. In India the smallest million city is—

(A) Allahabad (B) Amritsar (C) Faridabad (D) Rajkot 38. National Authority Chemical

Weapons Convention (CWC) has been set up under the adminis- trative control of—

(A) Prime Minister’s Office (B) Cabinet Secretariat (C) Central Secretariat (D) Home Ministry

39. According to 2001 census, the least urbanisedStateof India is— (A) Assam

(B) Bihar

(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Sikkim

40. In which one of the following crops does Madhya Pradesh stand first in India in area and production ?

(A) Cotton (B) Millet (C) Sugarcane (D) Soyabean

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1. What is the order of energy of the X-ray photon ?

(A) 1 keV (B) 10 keV

(C) 100 keV (D) 1 MeV 2. Three uncharged capacitors of

capacitances C1, C2 and C3 are connected as shown in figure to one-another and to points A, B and D at potentials VA, VB and VD. Then the potential at O will be— C1 O B D A C3 C2 (A) VA + VB + VC C1 + C2 + C3 (B) VAC1 + VBC2 + VDC3 C1 + C2 + C3 (C) VAVB + VBVD + VDVA C1 + C2 + C3 (D) VAVBVD C1C2 + C2C3 + C3C1 3. Two bodies are projected up-

wards with same initial velocity of 98 ms–1 after an interval of 4 sec.

At what time after the launch of first body will they meet ? (A) 12 sec (B) 14 sec (C) 15 sec (D) 10 sec 4. Assertion (A) : If

A + →B + →C = 0,

then →A ×→B = →B ×→C = →C ×→A

Reason (R) : The vector sum of

three vectors can never be zero. Choose the correct answer from the following—

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct expla- nation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct expla- nation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is wrong (D) (A) is wrong but (R) is right 5. A wave is represented by

y = 0·4 cos

(

8t – x

)

2

where x and y are in metres and

t in seconds. The frequency of

the wave is— (A) 4 π sec –1 (B) 8 π sec –1 (C) π 4 sec–1 (D) π 8 sec–1 6. The rate expression for a

gaseous reaction

2A + B → C, is the rate = k [A]2

[B]1/2

when the volume of container is suddenly reduced to 1

4 th, rate of reaction will increase—

(A) 32 times (B) 8 times (C) 4 times (D) 16 times 7. Which of the following is

commonly known as ‘oil of vitriol’ ?

(A) H2S2O7 (B) H2SO4 (C) H2S2O6 (D) H2S2O3Mg

8. Allylcyanide contains σ and π

bonds—

(A) 3σ and 4π bonds (B) 5σ and 7π bonds (C) 9σ and 3π bonds (D) 9σ and 9π bonds

9. Thefact about digitoxose is/are— (A) Its formula is C6H12O4 (B) The 2-deoxy sugar present

in several of the cardiac glycosides of digitalis (C) Its formula is C3H8O3 (D) Both (A) and (B)

10. Isomers differing in their con- figuration at a chiral atom are termed as—

(A) Enantiomers (B) Potentiomers (C) Chargers (D) Decomers

11. The effect of temperature among various bacteria is best under- stood by considering its effect on—

(A) Cell wall (B) Enzymes

(C) Ribosome (D) Lysosome

12. Which of the following is/are mounting medium (media) for slide preparation in botany anatomy ?

(A) Glycerine 10% (B) Glycerine jelly (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

13. The chlorophycean characteris- tics include—

(A) Presence of chlorophyll within chloroplasts

(B) Pyrenoids present within chloroplasts

(C) Photosynthetic food product is starch

(D) All of the above

14. The characteristic by which a gene is made able to yield a phenotypic character is called— (A) Gene library

(B) Gene expression (C) Gene manipulation (D) Gene pool

15. Investigators perform a dihybrid cross between two hetero- zygotes and get about a 3 : 1 ratio among the offspring. The reason must be due to—

(A) Linked genes (B) Epistatic genes (C) Pleiotrophic genes (D) Polygenes 16. Fishes have— (A) Vertebrae (B) Spinal cord (C) Skull and bone (D) All of the above

Rules for taking part in Quiz Contest

of Competition Science Vision

1. All students or those appearing in competitive examinations can take part in this contest.

2. Candidates taking part in quiz contest will necessarily have to send their entries by a fixed date. Entries are to be sent by ordinary post. Please mark your envelope 'Quiz–Competition Science Vision' on the top left hand side.

3. Answers given only on the form of the magazine will be admissible.

4. In the form there are four squares against each question number. Contestants should put a cross (×) in the square for the answer they think is correct. Giving more than one answer to a question will disqualify it.

5. Contestants should essentially write the number of questions they have solved.

6. Marks will be deducted for wrong answers.

7. The candidate sending the maximum number of correct answers will be given Rs. 600 as first prize. Next two candidates after that will get Rs. 400 and Rs. 300 as second and third prize respectively. If there are more than one candidate eligible for a prize, the amount will be equally distributed among them.

8. The decision of the editor will be final and binding in all cases, and will not be a matter for consideration of any court.

17. Change in vision of elderly persons, by which they go back to the sight of their youth, is termed as—

(A) Giardiasis (B) Gerontopia

(C) Ghost corpuscle (D) Night blindness

18. Which type of endoplasmic reticulum lacks ribosomes and is involved in the synthesis of steroid hormone ? (A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(B) Tough endoplasmic reticulum (C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (D) All of the above

19. Development on land requires that the— (A) Skin should be wet

(B) All integuments should be dried (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(D) Embryo be protected from desiccation

20. Chicken development can be used to model the development of—

(A) Birds (B) Reptiles (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

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ANSWER FORM

Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D 1. 11. 2. 12. 3. 13. 4. 14. 5. 15. 6. 16. 7. 17. 8. 18. 9. 19. 10. 20.