3. USART 4. PORT
Which of the above components are not found on-chip in a microprocessor but may be found on-chip in a microcontroller?
a. l,2,3 and 4 b. l,2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4
113. In memory-mapped I/O scheme, all data transfer instructions of 8085 microprocessor can be used only for
a. Memory devices b. I/O devices c. Ports
d. Memory and I/O devices 114. Assembler directives are required
a. Only in hand assembling b. Only in machine assembling
c. In hand assembling as well as machine assembling
d. Only when there is an operating system 115. A microprocessor using a 3 MHz - clock
has three ‘T’ states in each machine cycle. If an instruction cycle needs 4 machine cycles, how much time will be taken to complete the execution of this instruction? a. 333 ns
b. 1333 ns c. 1
sd. 4s
116. How many general purpose 8-bit registers are there in 8085 microprocessor?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12
117. Consider the following: 1. Small capacity
2. Fast memory access 3. Needs refreshing 4. Very costly
The essential characteristics of a Cache memory include
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4
118. An instruction cycle is the tune in which, a hard- wired controller completes four functions. What is the correct sequence of these functions?
a. Fetch update - decode – execute b. Fetch - decode - update – execute c. Decode - execute - fetch – update d. Execute - decode - fetch - update
119. Consider the following four components found in the ALU of a computer:
1. XOR gates 2. Half-adder 3. Full subtract or 4. Shifter
Which of the above components are combinational circuits?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4
120. Which of the following addressing modes imply that the operand is stored separately in the main memory?
1. Indirect 2. Immediate 3. Indexed
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
1 of 14
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Character) A. Colon (:) B. Blank ( ) C. Comma (,) D. Semicolon (;) List II (Interpretation)
1. Separates operation and operand fields. 2. Separates operands
3. Beginning of comment field 4. End of label field
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
2. In a memory map the lowest address of an 8 k byte RAM is 1000 H. what is the highest address?
a. 8192 H b. 2 F F F H c. 7 F F F H d. 3000 H
3. Which one of the following statements is correct?
In 8085 p, the READY signal is useful when the CPU communicates with
a. A PPI chip
b. A DMA controller chip c. A slow peripheral chip d. A fast peripheral chip 4. A current of
2 2 sin 314t30 2 2 cos 952t45
is measured with a thermocouple type, 5 A full scale meter.What is the meter reading? a. 2A
b. 3A c. 5A
d.
2 3 2 A
5. Which one of the following statements is correct?
In an energy meter, the braking device is provided to produce braking torque so that the
a. Energy meter can be brought to a standstill
b. Meter creeping be checked
c. Moving system of the instrument (disc) rotates at a speed for a particular rate of energy consumption at 4. any time
d. Shunt field flux lags behind voltage by exactly 90°
6. Three voltmeter method used for power factor measurement gave the following readings
V1 = 200 Volts across an inductive load, V2 = 180 Volts across a non-inductive resistor, and
V3 = 300 Volts across the two in series. What is the power factor of the inductive load?
a. 0.244 b. 0.30 c. 0.75 d. 080
7. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Chopper stabilized d.c. amplifier type electronic voltmeter overcomes the effect of
a. Amplifier CMRR b. Amplifier drift c. Amplifier sensitivity
d. Electromagnetic interference
8. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
In an LVDT, the two secondary voltages a. Are independent of the core position b. Vary unequally depending on the core
position
c. Vary equally depending on the core position
d. Are always in phase quadrate
9. A strain gauge has a nominal resistance of 500 2. When a strain of 2 × 10-4 is applied, the change in resistance is 0.5 . What is the gauge factor for the strain gauge? a. 1
E
b. 2.5 c. 5 d. 10
10. Which of the following is/are essential sub-system (s) of a data acquisition system? 1. ADC 2. DAC 3. RAM 4. Processor 5. Network Card
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 3 and 5 c. 4 only
d. 1, 3 and 4, only
11. A 3-phase fully controlled a.c. to d.c. converter feeds a ripple free average current of 200 A to a d.c. load. What is the rms value of current carried by each thyristor? a. 200 A b. 200 2 3 A c. 200 3 d. 200 3 A
12. A single phase diode bridge rectifier with finite value of source inductance feeds on R-L load. The load current can be assumed to be ripple free. What is the source current wave form?
a. Sinusoidal b. Triangular c. Square wave d. Nearly trapezoidal
13. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
In a d.c. chopper the free wheeling diode across the load
a. Improves the efficiency of power conversion of the chopper
b. Causes high voltage across the main thyristor
c. Causes high voltage across the auxiliary thyristor
d. Avoids high voltage when the main thyristor is turned off
14. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The peak inverse voltage rating of a thyristor in a McMurray inverter
a. Can be as small as the forward voltage drop of diode, i.e., equal to 1 to 1.5 V b. Should be the same as forward break
over voltage
c. Should be much greater than the forward break over voltage.
d. Is a very significant factor in the design of the inverter.
15.
For a random variable ‘x’ following the probability density function P(s) shown in the figure given above, what are the mean and variance, respectively?
a. ½ and 2/3 b. 1 and 4/3 c. 1 and 2/3 d. 2 and 4/3
16. If a signal f(t) has an energy ‘E what is the energy of the signal f(2t) ?
a. E (b) b. E/2 c. 2 E d. 4 E
17. To transmit N signals, each band limited to ‘f’ Hz, using PCM and time division multiplexing over a channel, what is the minimum bandwidth required for distortion less transmission?
a. f Hz b. NfHz c. f/N Hz d. 2 N f Hz
18. The local oscillator in a BPSK signal detector has a fixed phase error of 30°. This phase error deteriorates the SNR at the output by what factor?
a. 0.87 b. 0.75 c. 0.5 d. 0.25
19. In a PCM system with uniform quantization, increasing the number of bits
from 8 to 9 will reduce the quantization noise power by which factor?
a. 9 b. 8 c. 4 d. 2
20. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 2, the maximum range will be increased by what factor a. 2
b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
21. Given 224)r 13)r .
What is the value of the radix r? a. 10
b. 8 c. 6 d. 5
22. Which one of the following statements is correct?
If a computer has a “uni-bus” organization it means that the computer has only one a. Data bus
b. Address bus c. Control bus d. Internal bus
23. IC is the instruction count, CPI is the average number of system clock periods to execute per instruction and is the duration of a clock period. Then which one of the following expresses the execution time?
a. IC * CPI* b. IC*CPI/ c. IC* /CPI d. CPI* /IC
24. Four 8-input multiplexers drive a single 4- input MUX. What is the result?
a. 4-input MUX b. 8-input MUX c. 12-input MUX d. 32-input MUX
25. There are N processes in the memory. A process spends a fraction 1 of its time in I/O wait state. Which one of the following expresses the CPU utilization?
a. P b. 1– P c. PN d. 1–PN
26. Any computer uses three different memories called:
1. Cache memory 2. Virtual memory 3. Main memory
Moving from the CPU outwards, which is the correct order in which they appear? a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3,2 c. 3,1,2 d. 2,3,1
27. What is the function of a program counter in an 8-bit microprocessor?
a. To store the op-code of the instruction being executed
b. To store the op-code of the next instruction
c. To store the address of the instruction being executed
d. To store the address of the next instruction
28. An 8085 P is executing the program given below: MVI A, 10 H MVI B, 10 H BACK: NOP ADD B RLC JNC BACK HLT
How many times the instruction NOP will be executed?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
29. What is the effect of a DAD H instruction? a. To shift each bit one position to the
right with a zero inserted in MSB position
b. To shift each bit one position to the left with a zero inserted in LSB position c. To shift each bit one position to the
right
d. To shift each bit one position to the right
In the circuit shown in the figure above, the switch S is closed at t = 0. Which one of the following gives expression for the voltage across the inductance as a function of time? a. et/ 2 b.
1et
/ 2 c.
1et
d. et 31.For the circuit shown above, the current flowing through 1 resistor is adjusted to zero by varying the value of R. What is the value of R? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 32.
What is the Thevenin’s equivalent between A and B for the circuit shown above? a. 12V, 3/2
b. 4V, 3/2 c. 16/3 V, 2/3 d. 16/3 V, 3 33.
For the circuit shown above, the initial capacitor voltage is 2 V and I si a unit step function. Then, what is the expression for V(t) for t> 0?
a. 2et
b. 2e2t c. 1e2t
d. 1e2t
34. Which is the correct sequence of the devices in the increasing order of turn-off times? a. MOSFET–IGBT–BJT–SCR b. IGBT–MOSFET–BJT–SCR c. SCR–BJT–MOSFET–IGBT d. MOSFET–BJT–IGBT–SCR 35.
In the circuit shown in the figure above, steady state is reached with switch S open. Switch S is then closed at t = 0. what is the value of voltage V under steady state (When t= )? a. 50V b. 12.5V c. 25V d. 0V 36.
What is the coefficient of coupling for the magnetically coupled circuit shown above , if L1, L2 and M are 1 H, 0.25 h and 0.4 H respectively? a. 0.2 b. 0.5 c. 0.8 d. 0.9 37.
What are the suitable values for Z1 and Z2 to make the input impedance, Zin, of the above network equal to R?
a. R and R b. 2R and R
c. 3R and 2 R d. 4R and 4 R
38. If f1(t) and f2(t) have the widths (duration) T1 and T2 respectively, then what is the width (duration) of f1 (t)* f2(t) (where * denotes convolution)?
a. The larger of T1 and T2 b. The smaller of T1 and T2 c. The smaller of T1 and T2 d. T1–T2
39. What is sinc(t)* sinc (t) equal to? a. (t)
b. U(t) c. Rect (t) d. Sinc(t)
40. What is the impulse response h(t) for a system specified by differential equitation
5 6 ( ) ( ) ? y y y t x t a. h t
e2t2e3t
u t
b. h t
e2t2e3t
u t
c. h t
e3t2e2t
u t
d. h t
e2t2e3t
u t
41. Given
1, 0 0 t T x t otherwise and
, 0 2 0 t t T h t otherwise Which one of the following represents the convolution of the above i.e.,
(y t x t *h t ?
42. Consider the following statements about a silicon controlled rectifier
1. It is a four-layer three-terminal device. 2. A very small forward current flows
when the bias is below a critical value Vp.
3. For bias voltage V>VP the device conducts large current.
4. The value of Vp, decreases with increasing value of current in the third terminal.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3, only c. 3 and 4, only d. 1 and 2, only
43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Signal) A. U(n) B.
nu n C. u
n 1
D. nu
n 1
List II (R.O.C. in Z-domain)
1. |Z| || 2. |Z| || 3. |Z| 1 4. |Z| 1 A B C D a. 3 2 4 1 b. 3 1 4 2 c. 4 2 3 1 d. 4 1 3 2
44. What is the bandwidth in radian/s of the system whose transfer function is 1
1 s ? a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4
45. Consider the block diagram:
Which of the block diagrams given above can be reduced to transfer function
1 11 2C s G
R s G G ? a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3
46. The closed-loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is
2
25 10 25
s s .What is the loop transfer function of the system?
a. 225 10 s s b. 225 25 s c. 25 25 s d. 25 10 s
47. Assertion (A): Magnetizing current of a 1- phase transformer with sinusoidal supply voltage is non-sinusoidal.
Reason (R): Magnetization characteristics of transformer core is nonlinear.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
48. Assertion (A): Microcontrollers have the same architecture as a microprocessor.
Reason (R): Microcontrollers find wide application in embedded system design. a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
49. Assertion (A): In the von Neumann architecture, the program execution is essentially sequential in nature.
Reason (R): Programs are stored in the same memory as data, which has a single interface with the CPU.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
50. Assertion (A): The reflected (or echo) signal coming to a radar receiver is very weak compared to the transmitted signal.
Reason (R): Radar transmitter sends out large amplitude narrow pulses.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
51. Assertion (A): Coherent FSK system is preferred over non-coherent FSK system.
Reason (R): Coherent FSK, system requires less power than non-coherent FSK system.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
52. Assertion (A): An op-amp can perform mathematical operations like scaling, addition, integration, differentiation etc. Such building blocks can be suitably connected to obtain an analog simulator.
Reason (R): A differentiator is not used in an analog computer because it amplifies noise and other unwanted signals as its inputs.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
53. Assertion (A): The rise time of response in a PI controlled system can be adjusted by varying the integral time constant.
Reason (R): The rise time reduces when the integral time constant is decreased. a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
54. Assertion (A): If two signals are orthogonal they will also be orthogonal.
Reason (R): If two signals are or tonsorial they also will be orthogonal.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
55. Assertion (A): Inductors carrying steady direct currents act as effective short circuits with zero voltage across it.
Reason (R): The voltage induced across an inductance is proportional to the rate of change of current di/dt.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
56. Assertion (A): The transition or space charge capacitance of a reverse biased diode decreases with increase in reverse bias voltage.
Reason (R): The space charge width decreases due to increase in reverse bias. a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 57.
The above figure represents the band diagram of a metal oxide-semiconductor system.
The symbols have the usual significance. Which is the correct description of the semiconductor surface?
a. There is accumulation of holes at the oxide semiconductor interface
b. The semiconductor surface is completely depleted of charge carriers c. The band bending corresponds to the
onset of strong inversion
d. The semiconductor surface lies in the range between flat-band and sub threshold conditions
58. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The Hall coefficient of an n-type semiconductor is
a. Negative and varies with temperature b. Negative and constant
c. Positive and constant
d. Positive and varies with temperature 59.
Fermi Dirac distribution function is plotted for four different temperatures (T) as curves labelled 1 to 4.
Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I A. 0 K B. 50 K C. 300 K D. 400 K List II 1. Curve-1 2. Curve-2 3. Curve-3 4. Curve-4 A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 1 3 4 2 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 4 1 2 3
60. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
A. Thermal voltage
B. Current flow due to concentration gradient of charge carriers
C. Rate of change of carrier concentration D. Electric field intensity in terms of
charge density List II 1. Continuity equation 2. Poisson’s equation 3. Einstein equation 4. Diffusion equation
A B C D a. 3 4 1 2 b. 1 4 2 3 c. 3 1 4 2 d. 1 2 3 4 61.
In the above band diagram of a semiconductor, the Fermi level is 03 eV above the intrinsic level. What does the energy level E in the diagram represent? a. The Fermi level
b. The intrinsic level c. The donor level d. The acceptor level
62. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
In a p-type semiconductor
a. The donor band is near to conduction band
b. The donor band is near to valence band c. The acceptor band is near the
conduction band
d. The acceptor band is near to valence band
63. Consider the following statements regarding characteristics of super conductors
1. Resistively of super conductors is zero. 2. Magnetic flux density in super
conductors is zero.
3. The relative permeability of super conductors is zero.
4. Transition from super conducting to normal state under influence of magnetic field is irreversible.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
64. In a fibre optic system, what are the source and detector, respectively?
a. p-n junction laser and a photo diode b. p-n junction laser and an LED
c. LED and a BJT d. LED and a MOSFET
65. Which one of the following is the most suitable electric drive for large power, low speed, reversible drives?
a. Cyclo converter fed 3 phase ac motor drive
b. CSI fed self-controller load commutated synchronous motor drive c. Square wave voltage source inverter
fed 3 phase ac drives
d. 3-phase induction motor drive fed from a 3-phase ac voltage controller
66. A 3-phase induction motor is fed from a variable frequency variable voltage source such that the air gap flux remains constant. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The armature current of the motor is a. Independent of rotor frequency but
dependent on stator frequency
b. Independent of stator frequency but dependent on rotor frequency
c. Dependent on both stator and rotor frequency
d. Independent of both stator and rotor frequency
67. For a distribution sub-station power transformer, operating at normal voltage frequency, and with usual 24-hour urban domestic load-cycle, let the commercial efficiency be cand the all-day efficiency bea.
Under the operating conditions stated above, which one of the following is correct?
a. c a b. c a c. c a
d. c and acan not be compared, as they have different units
68. A transformer has a reactance of 0.1 p.u. and negligible resistance. What is its voltage regulation at full load, and 0•8 power factor lagging?
a. 8% b. 6% c. –6% d. –8%
69. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Field control of d.c. shunt motor gives a. Constant kW drive
b. Constant torque drive c. Constant speed drive d. Variable load speed drive
70. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Characteristics)
List II (Type of generators)
1. Shunt 2. Under compound 3. Over compound 4. Differential compound A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 2 3 4 1 d. 4 1 2 3
71. What value of resistance represents the mechanical load in the equivalent circuit of a 3-phase induction motor?
a. r2/s b. r2
1 1 / s
c. r2
1 /s 1
d. r2
1 s
72. A d.c. source supplies 100 A current to a 0.1 resistor. If the open circuit voltage of the source is 12 V, then what is its internal resistance?
a. 0.1 b. 0.02 c. 2.0 d. 10.0
73. Open-circuit (O.C.) and short-circuit (S.C.) tests on a synchronous machine were performed at a certain excitation and rated speed. If the speed is increased by 10% keeping the excitation same, what is the increase/decrease in the O.C. voltage and the S.C. current, respectively?
a. Increase by 10%, Increase by 10% b. Increase by 10%, remains same
c. Decrease by 10%, Decrease by 10% d. No increase, No increase
74. An under-excited synchronous motor is operating at no load on an infinite bus of voltage 1-0 p.u. and drawing a current of 08 p.u. Its synchronous reactance is 0.5 p.u. What is the p.u. value of its excitation emf?
a. 1-4 b. 1.0 c. 0.6 d. 0.4
75. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Motor) A. Hysteresis motor B. Shaded-pole motor C. Reluctance motor D. Universal motor List II (Application) 1. Photocopying machine 2. Phonograph turntable 3. Electric Shaver 4. Record player A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 2 3 4 1
76. How is the magnetic field dH from a short section dl of a current carrying wire, given by Biot-Savart’s law expressed?
a. dH IDL/ 4r2
b. dH IDLsin / 4 r c. dH IDLsin / 4 r2 d. dH Ir dL2 sin / 4 r2
77. A potential field is given by:
2
3
V x yyz.
Which one of the following expresses an electric field at P(2,-1,4)?
a. 12i8j b. 12ij c. 12i8jk d. 12i8jk
a. Equation 0
V
v may be regarded as poisson’s equation for an inhomogeneous medium.b. Two potential functions V1 and V2 satisfy Lap lace’s equation within a closed region and assume same values