CAP´ ITULO 7 TRABAJO FUTURO - PROYECTO FIN DE CARRERA

1. 0% 2. 4% 3. 50% 4. 100% 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 2: A young boy, Ram Lal developed respiratory distress. On examination, the Chest Xray showed hyperinflation

of one lung. Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis

1. Congenital lobar emphysema 2. Foreign body aspiration 3. Bronchiectasis

4. Atelectasis 5.

Question 3: Child care virus is

1. Para influenza virus 2. Herpes virus 3. Chicken pox virus 4. Adenovirus 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 4: A newborn was brought with persistent crying and was found to have rashes. On laboratory examination, it

was found to have lactic acidosis. The diagnosis is likely to be

1. Organic aciduria 2. Urea cycle defect 3. MELAS with lactic acidosis 4. Aminoacidopathy 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 5: Which one of the following statements is false with regard to pyuria in children

1. Presence of more than 5 WBC/hpf (high power field) for girls and more than 3 WBC/hpf for boys 2. Infection can occur without pyuria

3. Pyuria may be present without Urinary tract infection

4. Isolated pyuria is neither confirmatory nor diagnostic for Urinary tract infection 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 6: Upper respiratory tract infection is a common problem in children. All the following anesthetic complications

can occur in children with respiratory infections except

1. Bacteremia

2. Halothane granuloma 3. Increased mucosal bleeding 4. Laryngospasm

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 7: A 7 year old girl from Bihar presented with three episodes of massive hematemasis and melena. There is no

history of jaundice. On examination, she had a large spleen, non-palpable liver and mild ascites. Portal vein was not visualized on ultrasonography. Liver function tests were normal and endoscopy reveled esophageal varices. The most likely diagnosis is

1. Kala azar with portal hypertension 2. Portal hypertension of unknown etiology 3. Chronic liver disease with portal hypertension 4. Portal hypertension due to extrahepatic obstruction 5.

Question 8: A child was brought 6 hours after a snake bite. On examination a localized edema of less than two inches

edema was present at the site of the bite. There were no systemic signs and symptoms. The most correct management would be

1. Incision and suction 2. Inject antivenom locally

3. Polyvalent antivenom should be started i.v 4. Observe for progression of symptoms 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 9: A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and

developmental disability can have all of the following, except:

1. A chromosomal syndrome 2. A Mendelian syndrome 3. A polygenic syndrome 4. A teratogenic syndrome 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 10: Common cause for epiglottitis in children is due to

1. Hemophilus influenzae 2. Pneumococci 3. Staphylococci 4. Streptococci 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 11: A 12 week old child should be further evaluated for developmental delay if found to have which of the

following defects

1. Failure to raise head to 90 degrees 2. Fails to vocalize

3. Unable to make babbling noises

4. Does not transfer a red ring even when given in hand 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 12: Which one of the following is the most complication of measles infection in children

1. Otitis media 2. Bronchopneumonia 3. Encephalitis 4. Diarrhea 5. Correct Answer: 1.

1. 30 2. 40 3. 50 4. 55 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 14: While bathing a 6 month old child, his mother noted that there was a swelling in the abdomen towards the

left side. On examination there was an abdominal mass, which showed calcification near the left kidney. What is the most probable diagnosis

1. Lymphoma 2. Leukemia 3. Neuroblastoma 4. Renal cell carcinoma 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 15: Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the new born is seen in association with

1. Turner syndrome 2. Down syndrome 3. Neurofibromatosis 4. Ataxia telangiectasia 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 16: Which one of the following is not a component of APGAR scoring in the newborn

1. Heart rate 2. Muscle tone 3. Respiratory effort 4. Body temperature 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 17: The cause for anoixic spells in children include all except

1. Transposition of great vessels 2. Tricuspid artresia

3. Total anomalous of muscular venous return 4. Coarctation of aorta

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 18: The 9 month old child of a diabetic mother presents with tachypnea and hepatomegaly. Echo cardiography

of the heart showed normal cardiac morphology with asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Which of the following you will give to treat this child

2. Frusemide 3. Propranolol 4. Isoptin 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 19: Which of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission

1. Hepatitis E virus 2. Hepatitis C virus 3. Hepatitis B virus 4. Hepatitis A virus 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 20: A 6-year old boy is brought at emergency with purpuric and petechial rash all over the body. He appears

semiconscious and febrile. Total leukocyte count is 20000 per mm3 with 88% polymorphs. platelet count is 1-2 lac/mm3. The most likely diagnosis is

1. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura 2. Meningococcemia

3. Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome 4. Dengue hemorrhagic fever

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 21: Osteomatacia is associated with

1. Decrease in osteoid volume 2. Derease in osteoid surface

3. Increase in osteoid maturiaton time 4. Increase in mineral apposition rate 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 22: A 2 year old boy presented with fever. On examination, he had a respiratory rate of 50 per minute with

bilateral crepitations and no chest indrawing. Cyanosis was present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

1. Pneumonia 2. No pneumonia 3. Severe pneumonia

4. Upper respiratory tract infection 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 23: Which positive test does not necessarily indicate HIV infection in a newborn?

1. ELISA for HIV IgG antibody 2. p24 antigen

4. ELISA for HIV IgA antibody 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 24: All the following are seen in congenital rubella syndrome except

1. Mental retardation 2. Aortic stenosis 3. Dearness

4. Patent ductus arteriosus 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 25: The most common genetic disorder causing liver disease in children is

1. Hemochromatosis

2. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency 3. Glycogen storage diseases 4. Cystic fibrosis

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 26: A 2 year old child develops acute respiratory distress and was brought to the casualty. On examination,

there were decreased breath sounds with wheeze on the right side. The Chest Xray showed diffuse opacity in the right hemithorax. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Pneumothorax

2. Foreign body aspiration 3. Pleural effusion 4. Unilateral emphysema 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 27: A 2-month baby presents with history of jaundice, turmeric colored urine and pale stools since birth.

Examination reveals liver span of 10 cms. Firm in consistency and spleen of 3 cms. The most specific investigation for establishing the diagnosis would be

1. Liver function tests 2. Ultrasound abdomen 3. Peroperative Cholangiogram 4. Liver biopsy

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 28: An 8 year old patient presented with fever and cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat.

There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows more than 20 lymphoplasmacytoid cells. The diagnosis is most likely to be

1. Tuberculosis

2. Infectious mononucleosis 3. Acute leukemia

4. Influenza 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 29: A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hour and vomited twice in last 4 hour. he is irritable but

drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is

1. Intravenous fluids 2. Oral rehydration therapy

3. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids 4. Plain water ad libitum

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 30: Child of Vasanthi, was weaned from breast milk on the fifth day and was given sugar cane juice. The child

developed hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly. Biochemical examination showed hypophosphatemia and reducing substances in urine. The child is probably suffering from which of the following enzyme deficiencies

1. Aldolase B 2. Fructokinase 3. Glucose 6 Phosphatase 4. Beta Galactosidase 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 31: A 2 month old baby with accute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hours.

The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother's hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be

1. HBsAg positive only 2. HbsAg and HBeAg positve 3. HBsAg and HBe antibody positive 4. HBV DNA positive

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 32: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome, all the following are true except

1. Increased incidence in < 34 weeks

2. More common in infants of diabetic mothers 3. 100% oxygen is given in treatment

4. Cyanosis is present 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 33: A ten-year old girl presents with swelling of one knee joint. All of the following conditions can be considered

in the differential diagnosis, except:

1. Tuberculosis

2. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis 3. Haemophilia.

4. Villonodular synovitis 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 34: Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured from a single source at a picnic party. Twenty children

developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhea 6-10 hours after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is

1. Rotavirus infection

2. Entero-toxigenic E.Coli infection 3. Staphylococcol toxin

4. Clostridium perfringens infection 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 35: Which one of the folloing is the most common cause of abdominal mass in neonates

1. Neuroblastomas 2. Wilms’ tumour 3. Distended bladder

4. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 36: An ultrasound in a 3 year old child shows a 3 cm circumscribed hypoechoic mass in the abdomen. The

diagnosis is most likely to be

1. Neuroblastoma 2. Wilm’s tumor 3. Oncocytoma 4. Renal cell carcinoma 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 37: All are important causes of post neonatal mortality in India except

1. Respiratory infections 2. Diarrhea 3. Malnutrition 4. Tetanus 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 38: All of the following are chromosomal breakage syndrome except

1. Fanconi’s anaemia 2. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 3. Bloom syndrome 4. Ataxia telengiectasia 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 39: You are part of a neonatal resuscitation team attending a delivery. A baby weighing 3 kg is born and has not

cried immediately. What sequence of resuscitation steps will you carry out for this baby

1. Dry the baby; position the tactile stimulation; suction of mouth and nose ; free flow oxygen if required 2. Day the baby; free flow oxygen; suction of mouth and nose

3. Position the baby; suction of mouth and nose ;free flow oxygen; tactile stimulation; dry the baby

4. Dry the baby; position the baby; suction of mouth and nose; tactile stimulation; free flow oxygen if required 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 40: A 2 year old child weighing 6.7 kg and with a history of diarrhea and vomiting for 2 days is brought to the

hospital. On examination, the skin when pinched up took almost seconds to return to normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

1. No dehydration 2. Some dehydration 3. Severe dehydration

4. Skin pinching is not reliable in making a diagnosis 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 41: A 1-moth old baby presents with frequent vomiting and failure to thrive. There are features of moderate

dehydrtion. Blood sodium is 122mEa/l and potassium is 6.1 mEq/l. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Gitelman syndrome 2. Bartter syndrome 3. 21-hydroxylase deficiency 4. 11-b hydroxylase deficiency 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 42: Which one of the following is not associated with jaundice in infancy

1. Hereditary fructose intolerance 2. Maple syrup urine disease 3. Galactosemia

4. Crigler Najjar syndrome 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 43: An ultrasound in a 3 year old child shows a 3 cm circumscribed hypoechoic mass in the abdomen. The

diagnosis is most likely to be

1. Neuroblastoma 2. Wilm’s tumor 3. Oncocytoma 4. Renal cell carcinoma 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 44: A 6 month old infant develops high grade fever which subsided after 3 days following which there was

appearance of a generalized rash which too subsided after 48 hours without any residual pigmentation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

1. Roseola infantum 2. Measles 3. Rubella 4. Dengue fever 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 1:

Neonatal thymectomy leads to

1. Decreased size of germinal center 2. Decreased size of paracortical areas 3. Increased antibody production by B cells

4. Increased bone marrow production of lymphocytes 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 2: All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except

1. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis 2. Membrano-proliferative Glomerulonephritis 3. Good pasture's disease

4. Systemic lupus erythematosus 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 3: Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary artery disease

1. Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia 2. Von will Brand’s disease 3. Nephritic syndrome

4. Systemic lupus erythematosus 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 4: Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been patho-physiologically linked to which of the

following factors

1. Antibodies to thrombolytic agents 2. Fibrinopeptide A

3. Lipoprotein A 4. Triglycerides 5.

Question 5: All the following can be used to detect mutation except

1. Single chain polymorphism 2. Ligase chain reaction 3. Polymerase chain reaction 4. Genome sequence chain 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 6: Which of the following procedures are wsed as routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy

1. C- banding 2. G- banding 3. Q- banding 4. B-rd V- staining 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 7: Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to

1. Oat cell carcinoma 2. Squmous cell carinoma 3. Adenocarcinoma

4. Adenosqumous carcinoma 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 8: In Henoch-Schonlein purpura, which of the following is seen

1. Blood in stool 2. Recurrent infections 3. Thrombocytopenia 4. Intracranial hemorrhage 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 9: All the following are seen in asbestosis except

1. Mesothelioma 2. Pleural plaque 3. Calcification

4. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 10: Which of the following does not cause interstitial lung disease

1. Tobacco smoke 2. Sulfur dioxide

4. Coal dust 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 11: In a chronic alcoholic all the following are seen in the liver except

1. Fatty degeneration 2. Chronic hepatitis 3. Granuloma formation 4. Cholestatic hepatitis 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 12: Most important prognostic factor of carcinoma is

1. Grade 2. Stage 3. Mitotic index 4. Metastasis 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 13: Serum total lactate dehydrogenase level will NOT be raised in

1. Muscle crush injury 2. Stroke

3. Myocardial infrction 4. Hemolysis

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 14: In AML Chromosomal anomaly is seen at

1. 9 & 22 2. 21 & 9 3. 20 & 10 4. 8 & 14 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 15: Locally malignant tumor is

1. Chordoma 2. Chondroma 3. Choristoma 4. Hamartoma 5. Correct Answer: 1.

1. mycosis fungoides 2. psoriasis 3. lichen planus 4. bacterial infection 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 17: Genotype of Turner Syndrome is

1. XO 2. XXO 3. XXY 4. XY 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 18: All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemias, except

1. Age more than 60 years

2. Leucocyte count more than 1,000,000/ml 3. Secondary leukemias

4. Presence of t (8:21) 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 19: MHC class 3 Genes encode

1. Complement Component C3 2. Tumor necrosis factor 3. Interleukin 2

4. Beta 2 microglobulin 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 20: Principal lipoprotein manifestation of heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia

1. Increased chylomicrons 2. Decreased chylomicrons 3. Increased LDL 4. Decreased LDL 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 21: Kaposi sarcoma is caused by

1. Herpes virus 2. Adeno virus 3. Arbo virus 4. Reo virus 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 22: All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except

1. Protein S deficiency 2. Malignancy 3. Obesity 4. Progesterone therapy 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 23: An albino girls gets married to a normal boy. What are the chances of their having an affected child and

what are the chances of their children being carriers

1. None affected, all carriers 2. All normal

3. 50% carriers

4. 50% affected. 50% carriers 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 24: Which of the following is pan - T laymphocyte carrier

1. CD 2 2. CD 3 3. CD 19 4. CD 25 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 25: In primary tuberculosis, all the following are seen except

1. Cavitation 2. Caseation 3. Calcification 4. Langhan giant cell 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 26: Crescents in renal biopsy is seen in

1. Membranous Glomerulonephritis

2. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis 3. Rapidly progressive Glomerulonephritis 4. Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

1. 10-20% of all leucocytes 2. Phagocytosis

3. Antibody formation

4. Increase in chronic infections 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 28: Which organ is not involved in MEN I

1. Pancreas 2. Adrenals 3. Parathyroid 4. Pitutary 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 29: An intestinal biopsy specimen showed macrophages with partially and completely digested bacteria. Which

of the following conditions could produce such a picture

1. Whipple’s disease

2. Immunoproliferative Small Intestinal Disease 3. Cholera

4. Lymphoma 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 30: The HLA class 3 rejection genes are important elements in

1. Transplant rejection phenomenon

2. Governing susceptibility of autoimmune diseases 3. Immune surveillance

4. Antigen presentation and elimination 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 31: Thromboxane A2 causes

1. Vasodilation 2. Platelet inhibition 3. Both of above 4. None of the above 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 32: Stricture of gut is caused by

1. Typhoid 2. Tuberculosis 3. Crohn’s disease

4. Ulcerative colitis 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 33: In polycythemia vera, all the following are seen except

1. Hyperuricemia 2. Thrombosis

3. Evolution into acute leukemia 4. Spontaneous bacterial infection 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 34: Commonest site for scrofuloderma is

1. Larynx 2. Skin 3. Lymph nodes 4. Lungs 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 35: Example of type IV hypersensitivity

1. Coagulase test 2. Mantoux test 3. Schick test 4. Elek’s gel test 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 36: In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from

1. T cells 2. B Cells 3. Plasma 4. Macrophages/Monocytes 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 37: All of the following are Autosomal dominant except

1. Hereditary spherocytosis 2. Von Willebrand's disease 3. Hemochromatosis

4. Familial hypercholestrolemia 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Child was found to be positive for HBs Ag. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother's hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be

1. HBs Ag positive only 2. HBsAg and HBeAg positivity

3. HBsAg and anti-Hbe antibody positivity 4. Mother infected with mutant HBV 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 39: Necrotizing papillitis is seen in all except

1. Sickle cell disease 2. Tuberculous pyelonephritis 3. Diabetes mellitus

4. Analgesic nephropathy 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 40: DNA analysis of chorionic villus/ amniocentesis NOT likely to detect

1. tay sachs 2. hemophilia A 3. sickle cell disease

4. duchenne muscular dystrophy 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 41: A 10 year old boy, Pappu, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected on autopsy

except

1. Aschoff nodules

2. Rupture of chordae tendinae 3. MacCallum patch

4. Fibrinous pericarditis 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 42: IL-1 is involved in

1. T lymphocyte activation 2. Decreased wound healing 3. Gain in body weight 4. Macrophage activation 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 43: All the statement about lactoferrin are true, except

1. It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil 2. It is present in exocrine secretios of body

3. It has great affinity for iron 4. It transports iron for erythropoiesis 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 44: HLA association in Diabetes mellitus is seen in

1. Type I 2. Type II 3. MODY 4. Malnutrition associated 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 45: A 15 year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of

erthema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of

1. Localised immune-complex deposition 2. Cell mediated hypersensitivity 3. Locallized anaphylaxis 4. Release of complement C3b 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 46: The inheritance in Dechenne muscular dystrophy is

1. X- linked recessive 2. Autosomal dominant 3. Autosomal recessive 4. Polygenic 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 47: M4 stage of AML is called as

1. Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia 2. Acute monoblastic leukemia 3. Myelomonocytic leukemia 4. Monocytic leukemia 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 48: Lipo-oxygenase mediated chemotoxis is by

1. B4 2. C4 3. D4 4. E4 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 49: Soft, friable node enlargement is seen in

1. Typhoid 2. Thallesemia 3. Syphilis 4. Lymphoma 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 50: Disease or infarction of neurological tissue causes it to be replaced by

1. Fluid 2. Neuroglia

3. Proliferation of adjacent nerve cells 4. Blood vessel

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 51: Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is

1. Comedo necrosis

2. Atypical lobular hyperplasia

3. Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells 4. Desmoplasia

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 52: Most sensitve and specific test ofr diagnosis of iron efficiency is

1. Serum iron levels 2. Serum ferritin levels

3. Serum transferrin receptor population 4. Transferrin saturation

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 53: Friedrich type V hyperlipidemia is due to excess of

1. HDL 2. LDL 3. IDL 4. Chylomicrons 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 54: All of the following are morphologic feature of apoptosis except

2. Chromatin condensation 3. Inflammation

4. Apoptotic bodies 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 55: Intestinal epithelial cells contain

1. T cells 2. B cells 3. Plasma cells 4. Macrophages 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 56: Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following except

1. Thalassemia 2. Gaucher’s disease 3. Metastatic carcinoma 4. Myelofibrosis 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 57: Karyotype in Klienefilter's syndrome

1. XO 2. XX 3. XY 4. XXY 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 58: What is the size of the microfilter used in blood transfusion sets

1. 50micro meters 2. 150micro meters 3. 170micro meters 4. 250micro meters 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 59: The tumor most commonly metastasizing to bone is

1. Neuroblastoma 2. Wilm’s tumor 3. Glioma 4. Sarcoma 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 60: The most pre malignant lesion among the following is 1. Leukoplakia 2. Erythroplakia 3. Metaplasia 4. Dysplasia 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 61: In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined to

1. Mucosa

2. Mucosa and submucosa

3. Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis 4. Gastric glands

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 62: The most common inheritance pattern of congenital heart disease is

1. Autosomal dominant 2. Autosomal recessive 3. Sporadic mutations 4. Multifactorial 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 63: Gluten sensitve enteropthy is most strongly associated with

1. HLA-DQ2 2. HLA-DQ4 3. HLA-DQ3 4. Blood group ‘B’ 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 64: Highly selective proteinuria contains

1. Fibrinogen and albumin 2. Transferrin

3. Transferrin and fibrinogen

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