Estudio de situaciones concretas de in- in-ter´ es

1. 45 db 2. 65 db

3. 85 db 4. 105 db 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 2: A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the

past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11 Kg. respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is?

1. Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital 2. Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotic and advise to report after 2 days 3. Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics and refer urgently 4. Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently

5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 3: In leprosy nerve involved is

1. Ulnar Nerve 2. Median nerve 3. Radial Nerve 4. Axillary nerve 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 4: Point of control in tuberculosis is when Prevalence is

1. < 1 in 0-14 group of children 2. > 1% is all children

3. <1% in 0-5yrs of age group 4. <2% in 0-14 group 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 5: A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is

1. Median 2. First quartile 3. Third quartile 4. Mode 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 6: WHO defines blindness if visual acuity is

1. Less than 3/60 vision 2. Less than 5/60 3. Less than 6/6 4. Less than 2/60 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 7: Which of the following gives the best idea regarding the morbidity in a community

1. Sentinal surveillance 2. Active surveillance 3. Passive surveillance 4. None of the above 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 8: The most important function of sentinel surveillance is

1. To find total amount of disease in a population 2. To plan effective control measures

3. To determine the trend of disease in a population 4. To find out reqiured control measures to control disease 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 9: Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more than

1. 1 per 10,000 2. 2 per 10,000 3. 5 per 10,000 4. 10 per 10,000 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 10: Which one of the following is not a contraindication for giving a live attenuated viral vaccine

1. Current febrile illness

2. Recent administration of immunoglobulin 3. Immunosuppressive disorder

4. Administration of another live vaccine 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 11: For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of

1. True positives +False negatives 2. False positives + True negatives 3. True positives + False positives 4. True positives + True negatives 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 12: Which one of the following diseases has the shortest incubation period

2. Staphylococcus food poisoning 3. Cholera

4. Diphtheria 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 13: Zero population growth rate is seen in

1. Sweden and GDR 2. USA and Russia 3. France and Japan

4. No country in the world so far 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 14: Which of the following statements is true regarding pertusis

1. Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000 2. Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%

3. Erythromycin prevents spread of disease between children 4. Leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 15: Median weight of 100 children was 12kgs. The Standard Deviation was 3. Calculate the percent coefficient of

variance 1. 25% 2. 35% 3. 45% 4. 55% 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 16: Which one among the following edible oils yields highest quantity of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA)

1. Coconut oil 2. Corn oil 3. Groundnut oil 4. Sunflower oil 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 17: Maximum level of Chloride in Drinking water is

1. 600 mg/L 2. 200 mg/L 3. 300 mg/L 4. 400 mg/L 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 18: Path of longest duration is

1. Limiting path 2. Critical path 3. Cumulative path 4. None of the above 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 19: In the context of epidemiology, the following are important criteria for making causal inferences, except

1. Strength of association 2. Consistency of association 3. Coherence of association 4. Predictive value 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 20: In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test which would give its

significance is

1. Unpaired t test 2. Paired t test 3. Chi square test 4. Fisher’s test 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 21: Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under Rural child Health

(RCH) Program are

1. 20 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid 2. 40 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid 3. 40 mg iron & 50 micrograms folic acid 4. 60 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 22: All of the following are random sampling methods except

1. Simple random 2. Cluster sampling 3. Stratified random 4. Quota Sampling 5. Correct Answer: 4.

coliform organisms 2. No sample should containts E.coli 3. No two successive samples should contain coliform organisms 4. No two successive samples should contain E.coli Which of the above criterion /criteria is /are included in the standards prescribed by WHO for drinking water?

1. 1 only 2. 1 and 2 3. 2 and 3 4. 1 and 4 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 24: Savlon contains

1. Chlorhexidine and chlorxylenol 2. Cetavlon and chlorhexidine 3. Cetavlon and habitané 4. Hibitane and chlorxylenol 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 25: The best indicator for measuring the replacement of females in a population is

1. Net reproduction rate 2. Gross reproduction rate 3. Total fertility rate 4. Age specific fertility rate 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 26: Following latrines are suitable for camps and temporary use except

1. Shollow trench latrine 2. Borehole latrine 3. Pit latrine 4. Septic tank 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 27: Under EMCP (Enhanced Malaria Control Project) launched in 1997, the criteria for selection of PHCs (Primary

Health Centers) included the following except

1. API more than 2 for the last 3 years

2. Plasmodium falciparum more than 30 % of total malaria cases 3. The area has been reporting deaths

4. The area has been reporting epidemics 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 28: According to WHO, adolescence generally means the age group of

2. 12 to 18 years 3. 11 to 15 years 4. 10 to 19 years 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 29: Class II exposure in animal bites includes the following

1. Scratches without oozing of blood 2. Licks on a fresh wound

3. Scratch with oozing of blood on palm 4. Bites from wild animals

5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 30: About direct standardization all are true except

1. Age specific death rate is not needed 2. A standard population is needed 3. Population should be comparable 4. Two populations are compared 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 31: According to the World Health Report 2000, India’s health expenditure is

1. 4.8% of G.D.P. 2. 5.2% of G.D.P. 3. 6.8% of G.D.P. 4. 7.2% of G.D.P. 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 32: The amount of oral Vitamin A solution administered to children under Vitamin A prophylaxis programs is

1. One lakh units every 6 months 2. One lakh units every 1 year 3. Two lakh units every 6 months 4. Two lakh units every 1 years 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 33: Which one of the followings statement about leprosy is true

1. Group surveys for case detection are carried out when prevalence of leprosy is less than 1 per1000 2. For determining bacteriologieal index,++ in a smear indicates 2 bacilli in every field

3. Minimum duration of treatment for paucibacillary cases is for 9 months 4. Minimum duration of treatment for multibacillary cases is for 12 months 5.

Question 34: Kata thermometer measures

1. Air temperature only 2. Air temperature and humidity

3. Air temperature humidity & air movement 4. None of the above

5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 35: PQLI index includes all except

1. Life expectancy at 1 yr of age 2. Per capita income

3. Literacy

4. Infant Mortality rate 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 36: According to International Health Regulations (IHR) Act, a pregnant woman, with the following duration of

pregnancy (in weeks), cannot travel by air to other country

1. 20 2. 28 3. 32 4. 36 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 37: Elements of primary health care include all of the following except

1. Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation 2. Providing essential drugs

3. Sound referral system 4. Health Education 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 38: What is the correct recommended schedule [on days ] for post exposure treatment of persons who have

been vaccinated for rabies previously with HDC?

1. 0,3 and 7 2. 0 ,3,7 and 14 3. 0, 3, 7, 14 and 28 4. 0 and 3 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 39: ‘Cut-off’ point to define obesity in “Body Mass Index” for females is

2. 28.6 3. 26 4. 25 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 40: Consider the following: 1. Disease control phase 2. Health promotional phase 3. social engineering phase 4.

Health for all phase The correct sequence of distinct phases demarcated in the history of public health is

1. 1,2,3,4 2. 2,3,4,1 3. 2,1,3,4 4. 1,4,2,3 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 41: In high risk areas the radial treatment for plasmodium vivax infection sfter microscopic confermation is

administration of tablets primaquine in the daily dosage of

1. 0.25 mg/Kg body weight 2. 0.5 mg/Kg body weight 3. 0.75 mg/Kg body weight 4. 1.0 mg/Kg body weight 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 42: The biological oxygen demand indicates

1. Organic matter 2. Bacterial content 3. Anaerobic bacteria 4. Chemicals 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 43: Active and passive immunity should be given together in all except

1. Rabies 2. Measles 3. Tetanus 4. Hepatitis B 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 44: Scope of family planning services include all of the following except

1. Screening for cervical cancer

2. Providing services for unmarried mothers 3. Screening for HIV infection

4. Providing adoption services 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 45: The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on

1. Visual analog scale 2. Guttman Scale 3. Likert Scale 4. Adjectival scale 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 46: Ability of the test to detect absence of the disease in those who actually do not have it is called

1. Sensitivity 2. Specificity

3. Positive predictive value 4. Negative predictive value 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 47: Ability of the test to detect absence of the disease in those who actually do not have it is called

1. Sensitivity 2. Specificity

3. Positive predictive value 4. Negative predictive value 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 48: In one single visit, a 9 month-old, unimmunized children should begiven the following vaccination

1. Only BCG 2. BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1 3. DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles 4. BCG,DPT-1, OpV-1, Measles 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 49: The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is

1. 150 KCals 2. 300 KCals 3. 400 KCals 4. 550 KCals 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 50: Reservoir for Yellow fever is

2. Aedes 3. Monkey 4. Rat 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 51: Prudent diet is

1. Diet for dietary goal achievement

2. Diet, which contains variety of foods to safe guard from deficiencies 3. Diet on which a person or group lives

4. Diet, which fulfills recommended daily allowances 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 52: The correlation between variables A and B in a study was found to be 1.1. This indicates

1. Very strong correlation 2. Moderately strong correlation 3. Weak correlation

4. Computational mistake in calculating correlation 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 53: By international agreement , low birth weight has been defined as a birth weight when measured within the

first hour of life is

1. Less than 2000 grams 2. Less than 2500 grams 3. Less than 2800 grams 4. Less than 3000 grams 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 54: The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of cholera in adults needs the adminstration of

1. Doxycycline [300 mg] once/ single dose

2. Tetracycline in a dose of 500 mg twice daily for 3 days 3. Metronidazole [400 mg] thrice daily for 7 days 4. Chloramphenicol [500 mg] thrice daily for 7 days 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 55: The best indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control programme is:

1. Prevalence of Goiter among school children 2. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women 3. Neonatal Hypothyroidism

4. Iodine level in soil 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 56: Incubation period of mumps is

1. 18 days 2. 10 days 3. 7 days 4. 12 days 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 57: Under the National Polio Eradication Program, a case of Acute Flaccid Paralysis is confirmed as Polio, under

the following circumstances except

1. If a case is lost to follow up

2. If a case could not be confirmed because the patient died before that 3. If a wild strain of polio virus is isolated from stool

4. If a patient develops paralysis 30 days after diagnosis of AFP 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 58: Chronic carriers in salmonella are

1. Faecal Carrier 2. Urinary Carriers 3. Blood Carriers 4. None of the above 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 59: According to the Central Birth and Death registration act of 1969, birth is to be reported within

1. 10 days 2. 7 days 3. 14 days 4. 30 days 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 60: Which one among the following edible oils yields highest quantity of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA)

1. Coconut oil 2. Corn oil 3. Groundnut oil 4. Sunflower oil 5. Correct Answer: 4.

1. Reduce the effects of sampling variation 2. Avoid observer and subject bias

3. Avoid observer bias and sampling variation 4. Avoid subject bias and sampling variation 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 62: Which one of the following is a conjugated vaccine

1. Hepatitis B 2. Rubella 3. Pertussis 4. Hemophilus influenzae B 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 63: The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true, except

1. The source of infection is mainly clinical cases

2. The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year 3. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended 4. The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years of age 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 64: Amount of Iodine in salt should be

1. 15 & 30ppm 2. 15 & 40 ppm 3. 20 & 40 ppm 4. 10 & 20 ppm 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 65: A population study showed a mean glucose of 86 mg/ dL. In a sample of 100 showing normal curve

distribution, what percentage of people have glucose above 86%?

1. 65 2. 50 3. 75 4. 60 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 66: For an adult Indian male the daily requirement of protein is expressed as

1. 0.5 gms/ Kg body weight 2. 0.75 gms/ Kg body weight 3. 1.0 gms/ Kg body weight

4. 1.5 gms/ Kg body weight 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 67: For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except

1. Prevalence of the disease in population 2. Power of the study

3. Significance level 4. Desired precision 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 68: In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for

1. Herd Immunity 2. Prognosis 3. Treatment 4. Epidemiological investigations 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 69: Physical quality of life index is measured by all except

1. Infant mortality rate 2. Life expectancy at age one 3. Per capita income

4. Literacy 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 70: Screening of women above 35 years for cancer cervix, using the Pap smear, is a method of

1. Primordial prevention 2. Health promotion 3. Specific protection 4. Secondary prevention 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 71: API stands for

1. Average parasitic index 2. Animal parasite interval 3. Annual parasitic index 4. None of the above 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

1. Life expectancy 2. Literacy 3. Income 4. Infant mortality 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 73: Level of proteins in human milk is

1. 0.8ng/dl 2. 0.9ng/dl 3. 1ng/dl 4. 2ng/dl 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 74: The association between coronary artery disease and smoking was found to be as follows. Coronary Art Dis

No Coronary Art Dis Smokers 30 20 Nonsmokers 20 30 The Odds ratio can be estimated as

1. 0.65 2. 0.8 3. 1.3 4. 2.25 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 75: Sullivan index indicates

1. Life free of disability 2. Hook worm eggs/gm of stool 3. Standard of living

4. Pregnancy rate per HWY 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 76: Homes where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists are called

1. Foster homes 2. Borstals 3. Remand homes 4. Child guidance clinics 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 77: Retrospective cohort studies are not characterized by

1. The study groups are exposed and non-expose 2. Incidence rates may be computed

4. The required sample size is similar to that needed for concurrent cohort study 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 78: Fluoride content in drinking H2O normally safe is

1. 0.5-0.8 mg/dl 2. 0.8-0.1 ng/dl 3. 0.2-0.8ng/dl 4. 0.2-0.5mg/dl 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 79: Which one of the following 'outcome measures' is not indicative of the benefit of a disease screening

program

1. Reduction of case-fatality rate in screened individuals 2. Improvement in the quality of life in screened individuals 3. Reduction of incidence in the population screened 4. Reduction of complications

5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 80: Which one of the following has highest “Glycemic Index”?

1. Corn flakes 2. Ice cream 3. Brown rice 4. Whole wheat bread 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 81: Essential obstetric care includes the following, except

1. Early registration of pregnancy (Within 12-16 weeks) 2. Provision of safe delivery

3. 24- hour delivery services at primary health centers (PHCs) 4. Provision of minimum three antenatal check-ups

5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 82: The Vitamin A supplement administered in Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme"

contain: 1. 25,000 i.u./ml 2. 1 lakh i.u./m.l. 3. 3 lakh i.u./m.l. 4. 5 lakh i.u./m.l. 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 83: Serial interval is

1. Time gap between primary and secondary case 2. Time gap between index and primary case

3. Time taken for a person from infection to develop maximum infectivity 4. The time taken from infection till a person infects another person 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 84: Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is

1. Activities of Daily living (ADL) scale

2. Wing's Handicaps, Behavior and Skills (HBS) Schedule 3. Binet and Simon IQ tests

4. Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 85: In a prospective study comprising 10000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 were

not. 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above?

1. Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer 2. Beta carotene is not protective in lung cancer

3. The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions 4. Beta carotene is carcinogenic

5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 86: Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes

1. All the people living in next fifty houses 2. All the close contacts

3. All susceptibles amongst close contact 4. All susceptibles in the whole village 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 87: The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing

1. Criterion validity 2. Construct validity 3. Discriminant validity 4. Content validity 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 88: Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged

2. 0-5 years 3. 0-15 years 4. 0-25 years 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 89: Net protein utilization of fish is

1. 57% 2. 67% 3. 77% 4. 87% 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 90: In North India most common congenital lesion seen is

1. Neural Tube defects 2. Cleft Palate

3. Congenital heart disease 4. Club foot

5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 91: Which cardiac defect is more common in congenital rubella syndrome

1. PDA 2. Aortic stenosis 3. Aortic regurgitation 4. MVP 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 92: National Tree

National Tree of India

1. Peepal 2. Mango 3. coconut 4. Pine 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 93: All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except

1. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar 2. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding

3. The sample size required depends on the hypothesis

4. The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis. 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 94: For a 60 kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein requirement has been calculated to be 40 g (mean) ± 10

(Standard deviation). The recommended daily allowance of protein would be

1. 60 g/ day 2. 70 g/ day 3. 30 g/ day 4. 90 g/ day 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 95: The permissible dose of man made radiation should not exceed

1. 3 rads per year 2. 5 rads per year 3. 8 rads per year 4. 12 rads per year 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 96: Consider the following contraceptives: 1. Copper T 2. Contraceptive Pill 3. Condom 4. Spermicides Which of

these are conventional Contraceptives

1. 1 and 2 2. 1,2 and 3 3. 3 and 4 4. 2,3 and 4 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 97: Positive Schick test indicates

1. Immunity to diphtheria 2. Susceptibility to diphtheria 3. Hypersensitivity to diphtheria 4. Infection with diphtheria 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 98: World health day is on

1. 7th April 2. 10th October 3. 21st May 4. 23rd June 5. Correct Answer: 1.

1. Cognitive learning 2. Affective learning 3. Psychomotor learning 4. Learning by conditioned reflex 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 100: The number of years of healthy life lost due to all causes whether from premature mortality or from

disability is called

1. Quality adjusted life lost years(QALYs) 2. Disability adusted life years (DALYs) 3. Sullivan's index

4. Standardised mortality ratio (SMR) 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 1:

A male aged 60 years has foul breath, he regurgitates food that is

eaten 3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is

1. Zenker's diverticulum 2. Meckel's diverticulum 3. Scleroderma 4. Achalasia cardia 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 2: Prime modality of treatment of Naso Pharyngeal Carcinoma is

1. Radiotherapy 2. Surgery 3. Chemotherapy 4. None of the above 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 3: A middle aged male comes to the outer patient department (OPD) with the only complaint of hoarseness of

voice for the past 2 years. he has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On examination, a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a portion both cords was seen. Management would include all except

1. Cessation of smoking 2. Bilateral cordectomy

3. Microlaryngeal surgery for biopsy 4. Regular follow-up

5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 4: The most common site of carcinoma of tongue is

1. Posterior one -third

3. Ventral surface of anterior two-third 4. Lateral border of anterior two-third 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 5: Peritonsillar abscess can extend posteriorly into

1. Anterior triangle of neck 2. Parapharyngeal space 3. Posterior triangle on neck 4. Submaxillary space 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 6: A 5 year old boy has been diagnosed to have posterior superior retraction pocket cholesteatoma. All would

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